This is from the 2007 mock exam:
- Ingrams agree that current annual pre-tax income need is $200,000. They expect their inflation adjusted expenses will remain constant during retirement. They plan to fund their living expenses by taking annual distributions from their portfolio with first distribution occuring immediately.
- Long-term inflation is 2.5% and planning horizon is 35 years.
- Total asset base is $4million.
- Required value of gifts is $3million.
We are asked to calculate the return objective.
So N=35, PV=-4m, FV=3m, PMT=205,000.
Answer says living expenses and taxes in one year (inflation adjusted) = $200,000 x 1.025 = $205,000.
Why are we using the living expenses amount in one year ($205,000) when we are calculating the return objective as of right now? Hence i thought we would use PMT=200,000?
- Ingrams agree that current annual pre-tax income need is $200,000. They expect their inflation adjusted expenses will remain constant during retirement. They plan to fund their living expenses by taking annual distributions from their portfolio with first distribution occuring immediately.
- Long-term inflation is 2.5% and planning horizon is 35 years.
- Total asset base is $4million.
- Required value of gifts is $3million.
We are asked to calculate the return objective.
So N=35, PV=-4m, FV=3m, PMT=205,000.
Answer says living expenses and taxes in one year (inflation adjusted) = $200,000 x 1.025 = $205,000.
Why are we using the living expenses amount in one year ($205,000) when we are calculating the return objective as of right now? Hence i thought we would use PMT=200,000?