An example 10 in the CFA Volume 5 page 124, question A’s answer states that “a lower capitalization rate (i.e. a lower NOI with such other parameters as interest costs and corporate expenses being the same) implies a lower FFO and hence a higher P/FFO ratio if P/NAV ratios are similar, as is the case here.”
Why capitalization rate has something to do with FFO? I thought we use the cap rate to calculate the “value of operating real estate”. Can someone help explain/
Thanks!
Why capitalization rate has something to do with FFO? I thought we use the cap rate to calculate the “value of operating real estate”. Can someone help explain/
Thanks!