For IFRS, and excluding the Prior/Past Service component, it’s correct to say actuarial gains and losses is expected return on assets - actual return correct?
If yes, we place this actuarial gain/loss into OCI and do not amortize it?
Why isn’t this amount expensed in the current period? Just not sure why they put this amount into OCI and record an interest cost as the spread between the (begin PBO - begin fair-value of the plan’s asset) * the discount rate? Wouldn’t it make more sense to do (begin obligation * discount rate) - (actual return)? I understand that’s closer to the Periodic Pension Cost, just not sure I understand the purpose of the entry to OCI. Is this an attempt to isolate the plan’s cumulative return in excess/below predicted return? Actuarial return/loss is driving me insane!
If yes, we place this actuarial gain/loss into OCI and do not amortize it?
Why isn’t this amount expensed in the current period? Just not sure why they put this amount into OCI and record an interest cost as the spread between the (begin PBO - begin fair-value of the plan’s asset) * the discount rate? Wouldn’t it make more sense to do (begin obligation * discount rate) - (actual return)? I understand that’s closer to the Periodic Pension Cost, just not sure I understand the purpose of the entry to OCI. Is this an attempt to isolate the plan’s cumulative return in excess/below predicted return? Actuarial return/loss is driving me insane!