KungFuPanda
New member
- Dec 7, 2011
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I have this problem understanding After-Tax cash flows under LIFO. ”After Tax CFs under LIFO are HIGHER than FIFO.” This does not make sense to me–Yes, I understand you pay less taxes than FIFO because COGS is higher, operating profit is lower and therefore the taxable amount is lower.
If two firms (one LIFO, the other FIFO) have EBIT of 50 and 60 respectively, then yes LIFO firm has less tax due because their EBIT is lower, but the $$ amount of EBIT(1-T) is still lower than the FIFO firm (32.5 vs. 39 assuming T=.35) because the EBIT was lower to begin with… So how can we say that “After-tax CF is higher under LIFO” than if FIFO had been used ???
If two firms (one LIFO, the other FIFO) have EBIT of 50 and 60 respectively, then yes LIFO firm has less tax due because their EBIT is lower, but the $$ amount of EBIT(1-T) is still lower than the FIFO firm (32.5 vs. 39 assuming T=.35) because the EBIT was lower to begin with… So how can we say that “After-tax CF is higher under LIFO” than if FIFO had been used ???