hello
I am a little confused with the amortised cost of a financial asset. If for example a company has a patent worth 15 M USD and the useful life is 15 years then the company can amortise 1 M USD every year. Does it work the same way with a financial asset?
Thanks
I am a little confused with the amortised cost of a financial asset. If for example a company has a patent worth 15 M USD and the useful life is 15 years then the company can amortise 1 M USD every year. Does it work the same way with a financial asset?
Thanks