Would this be an pseudo-accurate example of basis risk?
So basis risk would arise when I enter into a futures contract with a foreign currency. Then the interest rate on either the domestic or foreign currency changes, thus changing the new futures rate. Because of this, when I go to transact out of my initial futures contract, I may make/lose money because the futures rate has changed based on an interest rate changing.
Am I thinking about this the right way? Thanks
So basis risk would arise when I enter into a futures contract with a foreign currency. Then the interest rate on either the domestic or foreign currency changes, thus changing the new futures rate. Because of this, when I go to transact out of my initial futures contract, I may make/lose money because the futures rate has changed based on an interest rate changing.
Am I thinking about this the right way? Thanks