old_akakaraka
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- Jun 18, 2026
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Somehow the whole equity/beta and FI/duration framework does not make sense to me when comparing the different parts of the curriculum:
- From the institutional PM sections (extended balance sheet): When calculating WACC with/without pension assets, beta is calculated in order to determine firm risk. For debt and FI investments, beta is always zero. How come? As FI is an investable asset class, it must be included in the market PF or be considered riskless. If it is not riskless (which it isn’t), it must have beta unequal to zero.
- What is the duration of a stock? Obviously, a bank stock must have at least some sensitivity to interest rate changes. So, how do beta and duration actually relate?
- From the risk material, we know that exposure to either stock indices (=beta) or interest rates (=duration) can be synthetically created. If you want market exposure: Synthesize cash from bonds (=reduce duration to 0), and buy stock index futures (= increase beta). If you want interest rate exposure: Synthesize cash from equity (= reduce beta to 0), buy bond futures (= increase duration). This part of the curriculum thus assumes that equity does not have duration and bonds do not have beta.
- From the economics material, it is recommended to invest in bonds during economic downturns (higher market risk, lower interest rates), and in equity during (beginning) upturns (lower market risk premium, increasing interest rates). From CAPM, the return of an asset = interest rate + beta * market risk premium. So, equity and debt (or beta and interest rate sensitivity) are not considered independent, isolated concepts, but somehow put into relation with each other.
As I (hopefully) move towards completing the CFA program, I feel totally retarded by asking the following extremely basic questions that this whole post boils down to:
1. Does equity have duration? Or is it just (close to) 0? In that case, it would be considered totally independent of interest rate movements.
2. Do bonds have beta? Or is it just (close to) 0? In that case, it would be considered a riskless asset.
3. Is there a straight-forward relationship (formula) between leverage of a firm and beta? I.e. if beta = 2 and D/E = 1.0, the amount of debt is doubled (by issuing new bonds), what is beta?
4. Is there an economic relationship between the level of interest rates and the return on the market portfolio, and between return on euqity and debt?
I would be grateful for comments. Somehow I cannot connect the dots. Thanks, OA
- From the institutional PM sections (extended balance sheet): When calculating WACC with/without pension assets, beta is calculated in order to determine firm risk. For debt and FI investments, beta is always zero. How come? As FI is an investable asset class, it must be included in the market PF or be considered riskless. If it is not riskless (which it isn’t), it must have beta unequal to zero.
- What is the duration of a stock? Obviously, a bank stock must have at least some sensitivity to interest rate changes. So, how do beta and duration actually relate?
- From the risk material, we know that exposure to either stock indices (=beta) or interest rates (=duration) can be synthetically created. If you want market exposure: Synthesize cash from bonds (=reduce duration to 0), and buy stock index futures (= increase beta). If you want interest rate exposure: Synthesize cash from equity (= reduce beta to 0), buy bond futures (= increase duration). This part of the curriculum thus assumes that equity does not have duration and bonds do not have beta.
- From the economics material, it is recommended to invest in bonds during economic downturns (higher market risk, lower interest rates), and in equity during (beginning) upturns (lower market risk premium, increasing interest rates). From CAPM, the return of an asset = interest rate + beta * market risk premium. So, equity and debt (or beta and interest rate sensitivity) are not considered independent, isolated concepts, but somehow put into relation with each other.
As I (hopefully) move towards completing the CFA program, I feel totally retarded by asking the following extremely basic questions that this whole post boils down to:
1. Does equity have duration? Or is it just (close to) 0? In that case, it would be considered totally independent of interest rate movements.
2. Do bonds have beta? Or is it just (close to) 0? In that case, it would be considered a riskless asset.
3. Is there a straight-forward relationship (formula) between leverage of a firm and beta? I.e. if beta = 2 and D/E = 1.0, the amount of debt is doubled (by issuing new bonds), what is beta?
4. Is there an economic relationship between the level of interest rates and the return on the market portfolio, and between return on euqity and debt?
I would be grateful for comments. Somehow I cannot connect the dots. Thanks, OA