cfaDecember
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- Jun 18, 2026
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I am reading the introduction to FSA in the Shweser notes and find this very confusing.
"The accounting entry for bonds issued at a premium requires crediting the unamortized bond premium account. Suppose the $1 million par value bond is issued at a premium of $100,000. Cash is increased by $1,100,000 and the related liability is $1,000,000 for bonds payable (face value) and also a $100,000 liability termed unamortized bond premium." And for a bond discount scenario they say cash is increased by the $900,000 proceeds of selling the bonds and $100,000 is shown as a reduction in liability.
What I don't understand is why a $100,000 profit is termed a liability and how selling a bond below par value can be a reduction in liability! I did read the amortization part and the company does pay a higher total interest cost when it sells the bond at a discount which should mean a higher liability and not a reduction in liability. Can anybody help me with understanding this please? Thank you.
"The accounting entry for bonds issued at a premium requires crediting the unamortized bond premium account. Suppose the $1 million par value bond is issued at a premium of $100,000. Cash is increased by $1,100,000 and the related liability is $1,000,000 for bonds payable (face value) and also a $100,000 liability termed unamortized bond premium." And for a bond discount scenario they say cash is increased by the $900,000 proceeds of selling the bonds and $100,000 is shown as a reduction in liability.
What I don't understand is why a $100,000 profit is termed a liability and how selling a bond below par value can be a reduction in liability! I did read the amortization part and the company does pay a higher total interest cost when it sells the bond at a discount which should mean a higher liability and not a reduction in liability. Can anybody help me with understanding this please? Thank you.