"U.S. Treasuries were little changed, with yields on two-year notes at their highest in more than 5 1/2 years, on expectations the Federal Reserve will increase interest rates at least twice more this year. " -Bloomberg 6/21/2006
http://www.bloomberg.com/markets/rates/index.html
Can someone explain this current phenomena:
2 yr note yields 5.19% whereas 10 yr note yields 5.14%
Based merely on yield-to-maturity, how is it possible that the market can price the shorter term notes into a higher yield? Does it make sense at all? And if it does to you, can you explain why?
Another question - Fed's interest rate hikes can cause investors to flock from their stocks to fixed incomes such as the treasuries. Wouldn't the demand spike for notes cause their prices to go up and hence in turn lower their yields? (then wouldn't that defy the textbook logic of "interest rates go up = bonds prices go down"?)
Thanks in advance.
chippp
http://www.bloomberg.com/markets/rates/index.html
Can someone explain this current phenomena:
2 yr note yields 5.19% whereas 10 yr note yields 5.14%
Based merely on yield-to-maturity, how is it possible that the market can price the shorter term notes into a higher yield? Does it make sense at all? And if it does to you, can you explain why?
Another question - Fed's interest rate hikes can cause investors to flock from their stocks to fixed incomes such as the treasuries. Wouldn't the demand spike for notes cause their prices to go up and hence in turn lower their yields? (then wouldn't that defy the textbook logic of "interest rates go up = bonds prices go down"?)
Thanks in advance.
chippp