Am confused with Spot Rate in context with Bonds.
Current yield make sense to me and so do yield-to-maturity(YTM).
where YTM =
c(1 + r)-1 + c(1 + r)-2 + . . . + c(1 + r)-Y + B(1 + r)-Y = P
where
c = annual coupon payment (in dollars, not a percent)
Y = number of years to maturity
B = par value
P = purchase price
Now how come Spot Rate is coming into picture?
Schweser notes says "The appropriate rates for individual future payments are called spot rates"
can someone please step in to iron out this confusion?
thanks.
Current yield make sense to me and so do yield-to-maturity(YTM).
where YTM =
c(1 + r)-1 + c(1 + r)-2 + . . . + c(1 + r)-Y + B(1 + r)-Y = P
where
c = annual coupon payment (in dollars, not a percent)
Y = number of years to maturity
B = par value
P = purchase price
Now how come Spot Rate is coming into picture?
Schweser notes says "The appropriate rates for individual future payments are called spot rates"
can someone please step in to iron out this confusion?
thanks.