archived_user
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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If you have all positive returns, in the formula, let`s suppose:
Year 1 - 34,9% year 2 - 6,13% year 3 - 2,69% year 4 - 11,66% year 5 - 21,77%
in the book the answer is:
(1,349)*(1,.0613)*(1,0269)*(1,1166)*(1,2177)^1/5 - 1
(1,349)*(1,.0613)*(1,0269)*(1,1166)*(1,2177)^0,2 - 1
My question is why instead of putting like 0,349 you need to add a 1 in all of them?
Can someone explain it please?
Year 1 - 34,9% year 2 - 6,13% year 3 - 2,69% year 4 - 11,66% year 5 - 21,77%
in the book the answer is:
(1,349)*(1,.0613)*(1,0269)*(1,1166)*(1,2177)^1/5 - 1
(1,349)*(1,.0613)*(1,0269)*(1,1166)*(1,2177)^0,2 - 1
My question is why instead of putting like 0,349 you need to add a 1 in all of them?
Can someone explain it please?