Calculating Bond Price Between Coupon Payments

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Can someone show me the work to calculate the 2 present values of the 2 cash flows for the following bond? (Using Nov. 16, 2016 as the “present”.)
I believe I’ve figured it out, but I want confirmation. The bond price should be $100 given that coupon = yield. I’ve also confirmed this using the excel Price() function. I haven’t found any examples in my google searching that show how to calculate bond prices between coupon payments.
Settlement Date: 11/16/2016
Maturity Date: 6/1/2017
Annual Coupon: 0.029
Yield: 0.029
Coupon frequency: 2
Cash flows: 1.45 on Dec 1, 2016 & 101.45 on June 1, 2017.
 
The present value of the 12/1/16 coupon payment (of $29.00 $14.50) is $28.97 $14.48 (= $29.00 $14.50 / (1.0145)^(2*15/365)); it’s 15 days till the first coupon payment.
The present value of the 6/1/17 coupon and principal payment (of $1,029.00 $1,014.50) is $1,013.25 $998.86 (= $1,029.00 $1,014.50 / (1.0145)^(2*197/365)); it’s 197 days till the maturity date.
 
Thanks for the help. The coupon payments should be 14.5.
So using your equation the PV of the cash flows are $14.48 and $998.97, giving a bond price of $1013.45. Given that the bond price “should be” 1000, as coupon = yield, is it safe to say that this method of calculating a bond price produces the “Dirty Price”? i.e. price + accrued
 
hamish4444 wrote: Thanks for the help. The coupon payments should be 14.5.
So using your equation the PV of the cash flows are $14.48 and $998.97, giving a bond price of $1013.45. Given that the bond price “should be” 1000, as coupon = yield, is it safe to say that this method of calculating a bond price produces the “Dirty Price”? i.e. price + accrued
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My mistake. I’ve corrected it.
I got PVs of $14.48 and $998.86, for a (dirty) price of $1,013.34.
 
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