Hemanth Reddy
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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This might seems like a stupid doubt. But here goes.
My basic understanding is that we can calculate YTM only after knowing the bonds current price.
So, in reality the first the entity (between YTM and bond price) we will know is the bond price rite (guessing here). In all the durations and other calculations where they want to check the price-ytm sensitivity, why do they calculate the bond price using the YTM or Spread change. Shouldn’t it be the other way round as the change in bond price is what leads to the YTM or Spread change.
My basic understanding is that we can calculate YTM only after knowing the bonds current price.
So, in reality the first the entity (between YTM and bond price) we will know is the bond price rite (guessing here). In all the durations and other calculations where they want to check the price-ytm sensitivity, why do they calculate the bond price using the YTM or Spread change. Shouldn’t it be the other way round as the change in bond price is what leads to the YTM or Spread change.