can someone explain plz

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confused2010

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CFAI volume 5. reading 31. swaps, pg 455. GB example 3.
how did they arrive at at 2FP(ci-FS). I got the components right but the net cash flow calculation logic eludes me.
 
Got it. the diagram on pg 454 helped. This is not mentioned in the LOS and schweser has skipped it completely. Wonder what to do about it. Thus 2 concepts leveraged floater and inverse floater are not mentioned in LOS, but explained in CFAI text and completely skipped by schweser.
what to do in such cases?
 
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