Can someone explain why heteroskedasticity is a problem only in multi-regressions and not single reg?

I suggest to check out economist Mark Thoma’s youtube channel. There are a few econometric courses, very fun to watch.
 
S2000magician wrote:
I believe that it’s a problem in each.
You are correct. Homoskedasticity of the error term is an assumption in single and multiple regression.
 
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