Go back to the basics of the formula itself.
You had an asset with a cost basis of B, which is now worth 1$. It earns R% per year for N years.
and you pay T on the Capital Gains.
Asset value at end of N year = (1+R)^N
Capital Gains = (1+R)^N - B
Pay Tax of T% on the above
So end value = (1+R)^N - [(1+R)^N-B)*T]
= (1+R)^N* (1-T) + B*T
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