helloatlas
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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It is given in CFAI that Value of an unleveraged firm is ewuals to [EBT(1-t)]/WACC
Does it mean that Value of unleveraged firm is [EBIT(1-t)]/WACC?
Both assumes perpetual cash flows
Thanks
Does it mean that Value of unleveraged firm is [EBIT(1-t)]/WACC?
Both assumes perpetual cash flows
Thanks