capital structure - finding the value of leveraged and unleveraged firms w taxes

helloatlas

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It is given in CFAI that Value of an unleveraged firm is ewuals to [EBT(1-t)]/WACC
Does it mean that Value of unleveraged firm is [EBIT(1-t)]/WACC?
Both assumes perpetual cash flows
Thanks
 
Yes, I believe so. If there’s no leverage, there’s no interest payment, I. So EBIT = EBT. Also, WACC is weighted at 100% equity, so WACC = cost of equity. And it looks like the cash flows here are perpetual and stable (i.e., not growing).
 
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