Hi everyone,
this topic was discussed in an earlier thread with some conflicting statements, I would like to make sure that I understand this 100% (http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-i-forum/91349493)
Say I am capitalizing a lease, then the Cash Flow effects will be (according to US GAAP):
1) Principal Payments: CFF
2) Interest Payments: CFO (under IFRS, these could alternatively be under CFF)
3) no effect on CFI
In the above mentioned thread, it was mentioned that interest payments would be under CFF and principal payments would be CFI, which is why I am confused. Accounting is really not my strong suit, so please correct me if I am wrong here.
this topic was discussed in an earlier thread with some conflicting statements, I would like to make sure that I understand this 100% (http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-i-forum/91349493)
Say I am capitalizing a lease, then the Cash Flow effects will be (according to US GAAP):
1) Principal Payments: CFF
2) Interest Payments: CFO (under IFRS, these could alternatively be under CFF)
3) no effect on CFI
In the above mentioned thread, it was mentioned that interest payments would be under CFF and principal payments would be CFI, which is why I am confused. Accounting is really not my strong suit, so please correct me if I am wrong here.