clearchemist
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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This seems like a basic question, but I’ve seen the following in a few questions and can’t help wonder if the book, or I, am making a mistake.
CAPM says that keq = Rrf + beta(Rmp-Rrf)
I have seen a few questions where the risk free rate is not subtracted in the second term, such that the book’s answer is CAPM = Rrf + beta*Rmp
Am I missing something here? E.g. is there a scenario where beta*Rmp should be used in place of beta(Rmp-Rrf)?
Thank you.
CAPM says that keq = Rrf + beta(Rmp-Rrf)
I have seen a few questions where the risk free rate is not subtracted in the second term, such that the book’s answer is CAPM = Rrf + beta*Rmp
Am I missing something here? E.g. is there a scenario where beta*Rmp should be used in place of beta(Rmp-Rrf)?
Thank you.