This is from Schweser qbank,
If the increase in Westlake�s deferred tax liability (ignoring its deferred tax assets) in FY2004 and FY2005 is expected to reverse in future years, what would be the anticipated change in future cash flow?
A) A reduction of $2.12 million.
B) An increase of $2.12 million.
C) A reduction of $5.30 million.
D) An increase of $5.30 million.
Your answer: A was incorrect. The correct answer was C) A reduction of $5.30 million.
We know that reported depreciation in FY2004 was 75% of its FY2005 value of $3.6 million, and thus must have been $2.7 million. We also know that taxable depreciation was $4.2 million, and thus deferred tax charges must have been 40% of ($4.2 million - $2.7 million =) $1.5 million, or $600,000 in FY2004.
We previously calculated that deferred tax charges were $1.52 million in FY2005, so the total increase in deferred tax liability in FY2004 and FY2005 would have been ($600,000 + $1,520,000 =) $2.12 million.
Using the formula:
Reduction in future cash flow = deferred tax expense/statutory tax rate
Reduction in future cash flow = $2.12 million / .40
Reduction in future cash flow = $5.30 million.
We could also have arrived at this figure directly by calculating that taxable depreciation was $1.5 million higher than reported depreciation in FY2004 and $3.8 million higher in FY2005. A reversal of the deferred tax liability would have to reflect a reduction in future cash flow by the same amounts (unless the tax rate changed), or a ($1.5 million + $3.8 million =) $5.3 million reduction in future cash flow.
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Not all the figures are provided here since this is part of a multipart question, but the you can take the numbers from the solution.
However, my question about this question is, the second step they did,
Reduction in future cash flow = deferred tax expense/statutory tax rate
I thought this is the difference in taxable income vs pretax income (confirmed from CFAI text), how can this be the reduction in future cash flow?
The way I understand it, the cash flow difference to result from reversal of deferred tax expense is the taxes that will have to paid (or received for assets), but in the solution for this question, they calculated the difference in taxable income and pretax income as the reduction in future cash flow, am I missing something? Any thoughts?
If the increase in Westlake�s deferred tax liability (ignoring its deferred tax assets) in FY2004 and FY2005 is expected to reverse in future years, what would be the anticipated change in future cash flow?
A) A reduction of $2.12 million.
B) An increase of $2.12 million.
C) A reduction of $5.30 million.
D) An increase of $5.30 million.
Your answer: A was incorrect. The correct answer was C) A reduction of $5.30 million.
We know that reported depreciation in FY2004 was 75% of its FY2005 value of $3.6 million, and thus must have been $2.7 million. We also know that taxable depreciation was $4.2 million, and thus deferred tax charges must have been 40% of ($4.2 million - $2.7 million =) $1.5 million, or $600,000 in FY2004.
We previously calculated that deferred tax charges were $1.52 million in FY2005, so the total increase in deferred tax liability in FY2004 and FY2005 would have been ($600,000 + $1,520,000 =) $2.12 million.
Using the formula:
Reduction in future cash flow = deferred tax expense/statutory tax rate
Reduction in future cash flow = $2.12 million / .40
Reduction in future cash flow = $5.30 million.
We could also have arrived at this figure directly by calculating that taxable depreciation was $1.5 million higher than reported depreciation in FY2004 and $3.8 million higher in FY2005. A reversal of the deferred tax liability would have to reflect a reduction in future cash flow by the same amounts (unless the tax rate changed), or a ($1.5 million + $3.8 million =) $5.3 million reduction in future cash flow.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Not all the figures are provided here since this is part of a multipart question, but the you can take the numbers from the solution.
However, my question about this question is, the second step they did,
Reduction in future cash flow = deferred tax expense/statutory tax rate
I thought this is the difference in taxable income vs pretax income (confirmed from CFAI text), how can this be the reduction in future cash flow?
The way I understand it, the cash flow difference to result from reversal of deferred tax expense is the taxes that will have to paid (or received for assets), but in the solution for this question, they calculated the difference in taxable income and pretax income as the reduction in future cash flow, am I missing something? Any thoughts?