I am studying for a lvl1 of the CFA exam.
One of the chapters deals with normal distributions of returns and goes on to discuss the skewness and I have a few questions about it.
The textbook says in a positively skewed returns:
- mode - investors are more attracted because the mean return falls above the median.
Here is an image of positively skewed distribution from wikipedia.
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/d/de/Comparison_mean_media...
I don’t understand how the mean is bigger than mode and media.
I don’t understand why the investors are more attracted to positively skewed distribution in general.
Could somebody help me understand these things?
One of the chapters deals with normal distributions of returns and goes on to discuss the skewness and I have a few questions about it.
The textbook says in a positively skewed returns:
- mode - investors are more attracted because the mean return falls above the median.
Here is an image of positively skewed distribution from wikipedia.
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/d/de/Comparison_mean_media...
I don’t understand how the mean is bigger than mode and media.
I don’t understand why the investors are more attracted to positively skewed distribution in general.
Could somebody help me understand these things?