I’m struggling to understand this question, in my opinion; because the used volatility is higher than the real one; the options are overvalued and therefore should decrease in value (btw, I get very confuse with “decrease / increase in value”). could someone explain me why I am wrong?
the anwser ” Pacific will want to purchase call options and put options because both will increase in value should implied volatility rise to match the level of historical volatility.” is not too much clarifying…
Thanks
S
the anwser ” Pacific will want to purchase call options and put options because both will increase in value should implied volatility rise to match the level of historical volatility.” is not too much clarifying…
Thanks
S