CFAI Mock Mistake or Me

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olajideanuoluwa001

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One of the CFA online Mock test on Impairment loss kept coming and I kept missing it..
Under US.GAAP, are we to use the Discounted Cash Flow or the Undiscounted Cash flow to revalue the asset?
I thought we will use the Undiscounted Cash Flow because the Undiscounted is greater than the Discounted Cash Flow.
However, in this Mock, the explanation is that the asset failed the recoverability test because the Undiscounted C.F is lower than the Carrying Value, and thus used the Discounted Cash flow which is even lower than the Undiscounted C.F to write-down the asset.
Is this correct? please…
 
olajideanuoluwa001 wrote:
One of the CFA online Mock test on Impairment loss kept coming and I kept missing it..
Under US.GAAP, are we to use the Discounted Cash Flow or the Undiscounted Cash flow to revalue the asset?
Is this correct? please…
Click to expand...
Under USGAAP unlike as in IFRS is required 2 step approach.
1. step make a test to determine if impaired required by comparing asset’s BV (carryng amount) to undiscounted CF stream. If asset BV is greater than undiscounted CF, than 2. step applies.
2. step, if impaired asset should be wtitten down for a difference between asset BV and discounted CF stream or its fair value which one is greater. An impairment loss is recognized in P/L and new (impaired) asset value is recorded in BS.
 
Its a two step process in US GAAP. First you check if asset value is greater than undiscounted cash flows. If it is then you impair it. This is the recoverability test.
Then for impairment, you impair it down to fair value. If fair value is not available, then you impair it down to the discounted cash flows (value in use).
 
Gigaloo wrote:
Its a two step process in US GAAP. First you check if asset value is greater than undiscounted cash flows. If it is then you impair it. This is the recoverability test.
Then for impairment, you impair it down to fair value. If fair value is not available, then you impair it down to the discounted cash flows (value in use).
Click to expand...
Correct.
 
For long term assets:
· IFRS: Higher of fair value less costs to sell, and value in use
· GAAP: impaired if carrying amount exceeds undiscounted cash flows. If it is impaired, the carrying amount is now higher of Fair value or discounted cash flows.
note that GAAP Fair value does not include costs of sale.
 
is there a possible scenario where “Value in use” doesn’t equal “DCF” or are they equal by definition?
 
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