CFAMember2010
New member
- Nov 22, 2007
- 0
- 0
Could someone please explain the formula to me. I know it’s
1-1/k^2
but if you subtract 1-1 that’s zero.
If there are 3 standard deviations how can the answer be 89%?
1-1=0
0/3^2=0
How can 0 be divided to get a percentage? Any help will be appreciated.
1-1/k^2
but if you subtract 1-1 that’s zero.
If there are 3 standard deviations how can the answer be 89%?
1-1=0
0/3^2=0
How can 0 be divided to get a percentage? Any help will be appreciated.