Clarification on excess purchase price and partial goodwill

[archived_user]

Text says that with excess of purchase price over book value acquired we use:
- % share of book value of net assets.
With partial goodwill we use:
- % share of fair value of net assets.
If excess of purchase price over book value acquire and partial goodwill are the same, why does one use book value and the other fair value?

 

[archived_user]

Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks

 

[archived_user]

I have done this from CFA curriculum- if you can refer me to the page no. i would comment.

 

[archived_user]

1) Purchase price LESS fair-value of identifiable assets = Goodwill
2) Fair value - Book Value = excess that is amortized over the life of the asset aquired
3) Partial goodwill = record the exact amount from 1)

 

[archived_user]

afranks1 wrote: Text says that with excess of purchase price over book value acquired we use:
- % share of book value of net assets.
With partial goodwill we use:
- % share of fair value of net assets.
If excess of purchase price over book value acquire and partial goodwill are the same, why does one use book value and the other fair value?

I think that this comes from the discussion in another thread about full and partial goodwill.
These values aren’t the same. In that thread, as I recall, you had already allocated a portion of the excess purchase price to the book value of assets to arrive at their fair market value; the amount left over after having done that is goodwill.