Reading 33;
There are 3 valuation approaches - DDM, FCFE, Residual income!
1) DDM One case where dividend approach is better is the noncontrolling perspective! I do not get it?
“An investor purchasing a small ownership share does not have the ability to meaningfully influence the timing or magnitude of the distribution of the company’s cash to shareholders”
2) FCFE - And FCFE is appropriate when the investor takes a control perspective.. The ability to influence the distribution and application of a firm’s free cash flow makes these models more pertinent to a firm’s controlling shareholders.
Can anyone throw light and explain in simple terms how ownership can dictate the use? How come the ability to influence the distribution of dividend not make the DDM also an appropriate choice for valuation?
There are 3 valuation approaches - DDM, FCFE, Residual income!
1) DDM One case where dividend approach is better is the noncontrolling perspective! I do not get it?
“An investor purchasing a small ownership share does not have the ability to meaningfully influence the timing or magnitude of the distribution of the company’s cash to shareholders”
2) FCFE - And FCFE is appropriate when the investor takes a control perspective.. The ability to influence the distribution and application of a firm’s free cash flow makes these models more pertinent to a firm’s controlling shareholders.
Can anyone throw light and explain in simple terms how ownership can dictate the use? How come the ability to influence the distribution of dividend not make the DDM also an appropriate choice for valuation?