Converting to finance lease-interest coverage calculation

[h21]

as titled, say if I have EBIT of 1000, original interest of 50, old lease cost per year of 500, if i have 6% interest rate, 10 years, total capitalized lease cost of 3690, why am I calculating interest coverage as
adjusted EBIT (1000+500-3680/10)
adjusted interest 50+6%*3680
I think I am confused by the 3680/10 vs 3680*6% difference
Thanks

 

[S2000magician]

The 3,680/10 is straight-line depreciation.
The 3,680(6%) is the interest on the lease.