dirtydirty Wrote:
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> 78 and 0… reason is that you have to add in
> synergies of 0 in the first case and 105 in the
> second case:
>
> so for 1) 495+1750/47 m shares outstanding = like
> 47.28 or something(lower than 50!), so hit to
> acquirer, gain to target of equivalent amounts (78
> in this case)
>
> for 2) 495+1750+105/47 = 50, so no hit to
> acquirer, all gains to target
To put this to rest, you’re correct with the first bit, Dirty.
For the second bit, gains to acquirer = Synergies - TP
Here you won’t divide the synergies by the shares, the loss to acquirer from giving shares has already been accounted for in the TP.
So it would be 105 - 78 = 27