According to Markowitz (Assuming a diversified portfolio) X would be a more diversified portfolio; a higher correlation would imply that it is closer to the market porfolio. Additional to that a portfolio becomes adequatly diversified after adding about 30 securities to it (unsystematic risk is reduced), but only fully diversified after the portfolio contains all risky assets (the market portfolio); put another way as unystematic risk is.
All of what Joe is saying is true and valid, but if this is a Markowitz PM (CML) question here. I will add though that by adding portfolio Y to porfolio X you will actually gain from further diversification if the weighed average SD of that portfolio does not detract from the diversificiation benefits of the correlation.
As a comment, if Y consisted of energy stocks (positively correlated to the market but not closely), and X was a diversified stock porftolio, with a few bonds and other assets, then, it would be X, but as Joe pointed out you really can't generalize too much based upon the information.
Also it's not only a function of the correlation, but of the portfolio's standard deviation, so you can't say that it's Y because it has a lower correlation. In theory then according to what you just said just holding gold would be a more "diversified portfolio" because it has a negative market correlation. You can also make that arguement on the from of stdev (but not expected return).
Bottomline, you can't determine, you have to look at correlation & portfolio expected return and stdev.
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at Thursday, May 4, 2006 at 09:55AM by jamespucyk.