Thanks everyone for your input.
This is a level III question - I raised it because I encountered a QBank question that mentioned PV or assets and PV of liabilities.
But in Schweser Book 2 Page 50, it mentions MV of assets and MV of liabilities.
If we assume that MV and PV of assets will be the same, how do we determine whether to use PV or MV of liabilities? I would lean towards PV of liabilities, but Schweser says MV:
“Funding shortfall occurs when the market value of the pension plan’s assts is less than the market value of its liabilities (ie, pension obligations).”