Hi Guys,
I am really struggling with trying to decipher when I should be using (1+k)^n as the denomiator and (k-g). This is when both the growth rate and the required rate is shown. Surely there should be no difference, but somehow there is.
Thanks
When you’re discounting a single cash flown periods from today, with a discount rate of k per period, you divide by (1 + k)^n.
When you’re discounting a series of cash flows that meet these criteria:
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