i'm looking at a company with a deferred comp liability and a corresponding investment asset (with a balance very close to the liability.
would you treat it as a component of working capital (for dcf purposes)? since it arises from not paying all of salaries/wages expense out in cash? or, would you treat it as a non-operating asset/liability (and add/subtract it with debt, etc. at the end)? since its generally long term. i could be wrong, but i think there is an interest-bearing component. however, the interest received on the investments should offset any interest expense on the liability. it almost kind of resembles a form of pik notes where the liability increases every year because you don't pay out the necessary cash to make it go down.
as far as how it affects the valuation, it really doesn't, as you would imagine, b/c the increases to the asset and liability will offset one another going forward. this is more of a theory question.
thanks.
would you treat it as a component of working capital (for dcf purposes)? since it arises from not paying all of salaries/wages expense out in cash? or, would you treat it as a non-operating asset/liability (and add/subtract it with debt, etc. at the end)? since its generally long term. i could be wrong, but i think there is an interest-bearing component. however, the interest received on the investments should offset any interest expense on the liability. it almost kind of resembles a form of pik notes where the liability increases every year because you don't pay out the necessary cash to make it go down.
as far as how it affects the valuation, it really doesn't, as you would imagine, b/c the increases to the asset and liability will offset one another going forward. this is more of a theory question.
thanks.