When a firm has a DTL and expecting decline in capex why is the present value treated as a liability and remainder treated as equity vs a firm with continued capex growth that can treat the entire amount as eqy?
here’s the question that prompted the post:
An analyst is comparing a firm to its competitors. The firm has a deferred tax
liability and is expected to have capital expenditures decline in the future. How
should the liability be treated for analysis purposes?
A. It should be treated as equity at its full value.
B. It should be treated as a liability at its full value.
e. The present value should be treated as a liability with the remainder being
treated as equity.
D. It should be considered neither a liability nor equity.
thanks, John
here’s the question that prompted the post:
An analyst is comparing a firm to its competitors. The firm has a deferred tax
liability and is expected to have capital expenditures decline in the future. How
should the liability be treated for analysis purposes?
A. It should be treated as equity at its full value.
B. It should be treated as a liability at its full value.
e. The present value should be treated as a liability with the remainder being
treated as equity.
D. It should be considered neither a liability nor equity.
thanks, John