poisondarkcandle
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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Can someone please explain to me the below? I’m confused
When I read the topic - Arbitrage & Derivatives, it states that by taking a position in an asset (underlying) and an opposition position in derivatives, we will be able to produce a risk-free return (I assume that is return on risk-free asset)
Then I went to read the next topic - Arbitrage & Replication, it says risky asset + derivatives = risk-free asset. I assume that same sign means same position in asset/derivatives. So does it mean these two are contradictory?
Much appreciate your help
When I read the topic - Arbitrage & Derivatives, it states that by taking a position in an asset (underlying) and an opposition position in derivatives, we will be able to produce a risk-free return (I assume that is return on risk-free asset)
Then I went to read the next topic - Arbitrage & Replication, it says risky asset + derivatives = risk-free asset. I assume that same sign means same position in asset/derivatives. So does it mean these two are contradictory?
Much appreciate your help