Bottom of Pg 81 in Fixed Income CFA Book (paraphrased by me): “For putable structures, implied volatility is around 10% lower than that of callables…this divergence in implied volatility suggests that asset managers, driven by a desire to boost portfolio yield, UNDERPAY issuers for the right to put a debt security back to the issuer…in other words the typical put bond should trade at lower yield in the market than is commonly the case….this structure should be favored as an outperformance vehicle only by those with a decidely bearish outlook for interest rates” Can someone please make sense of this for me? Thanks in advance