In the practice questions of Dividend Discount Valuation, question # 8 section C (pg 275) calls for calculating the PVGO.
The answer shown is using E0. Why isn’t E0 grown to E1 and then used to calculate the PVGO.
The formula shown in text is V = E1/r + PVGO so i’m confused.
The answer shown is using E0. Why isn’t E0 grown to E1 and then used to calculate the PVGO.
The formula shown in text is V = E1/r + PVGO so i’m confused.