If the question only provides the country’s real GDP is 2% and inflation is -2%. Should we assume the dividend growth rate is 2% or 0%?
Actually I’m thinking if I should put g=2% or 0% in GGM D0(1+g)/(r-g)…
GGM is in nominal terms.
in nominal terms GDP growth rate is 0%
meaning g =0
meaning Nominal Dividend is constant. (perpetuity)
formula for equity price becomes D/r (which makes sense to me)
I used to think we should use nominal term….
BUT
Kapaln B2, page 124
“The preference is to use real, before inflation, rather than nominal in GGM….”
So i start to feel confused.
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