I’m soliving problem #4 in Reading 45 (Alternative Inv) of the CFAI texts which basically compares a propery with higher property taxes to other similar properties… If they were valued using the Gross Income Multiplier approach and the Direct capitlization method, woulndt they be roughly the same, since DCI method deducts only operating expenses and not taxes in calculting NOI and hence the property value. The text says that the value from GIM method should be higher.. Any reasons why it may be this way?
Any help would me much appriciated!
Any help would me much appriciated!