Hello
I have seen the following 2 statements in the Schweser books and was wondering if someone could clarify no. 1. How can a developed country have a high capital to labour ratio but then low share of capital output as well?
1. Developed markets typically have a high capital to labour ratio and a lower alpha (share of capital output) as compared to developed markets.
2. Developing countries have a lower level of capital per worker.
I have seen the following 2 statements in the Schweser books and was wondering if someone could clarify no. 1. How can a developed country have a high capital to labour ratio but then low share of capital output as well?
1. Developed markets typically have a high capital to labour ratio and a lower alpha (share of capital output) as compared to developed markets.
2. Developing countries have a lower level of capital per worker.