Why is there no economic rent when the supply curve is prefectly elastic? Is it because the supply can be changed, and so the factors of production have easy jobs, and hence there is no opportunity cost aka the economic rent?
Supply of land is considered inelastic because if prices increase the supply cannot be increased. it is limited. But what if prices of land go down? Which never happens. Take the case of oil. If prices of oil go down (possible), and the extraction costs rise, it might not be viable to extract, leading to a shortfall in supply of oil. But it was mentioned that supply of oil, gold, etc. is inelastic? How? The resources are limited so their supply cannot be increased, but it can be decreased???
Supply of land is considered inelastic because if prices increase the supply cannot be increased. it is limited. But what if prices of land go down? Which never happens. Take the case of oil. If prices of oil go down (possible), and the extraction costs rise, it might not be viable to extract, leading to a shortfall in supply of oil. But it was mentioned that supply of oil, gold, etc. is inelastic? How? The resources are limited so their supply cannot be increased, but it can be decreased???