neiljeff123
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
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Evening All,
I’ve been struggling with a concept and wonder if anyone can shed some light:
Imagine the risk free rate in the UK is 2% and is 1% in the US. The rate in the UK then moves up to 3%. Which of the following would result:
1) The GBP appreciates compared to the USD as the rise in the UK risk free rate means the attactiveness of investing in the UK increases compared to the US on a relative basis
2) The GBP depreciates as the international fisher relation suggests an increase in the interest rate differential would cause the inflation differential to move in the same way. However, an increase in the inflation differential would lead to a depreciation of the currency whose inflation rate has increased on a relative basis.
Thanks in advance
p.s. I studied econ at uni so really should know this by now!
I’ve been struggling with a concept and wonder if anyone can shed some light:
Imagine the risk free rate in the UK is 2% and is 1% in the US. The rate in the UK then moves up to 3%. Which of the following would result:
1) The GBP appreciates compared to the USD as the rise in the UK risk free rate means the attactiveness of investing in the UK increases compared to the US on a relative basis
2) The GBP depreciates as the international fisher relation suggests an increase in the interest rate differential would cause the inflation differential to move in the same way. However, an increase in the inflation differential would lead to a depreciation of the currency whose inflation rate has increased on a relative basis.
Thanks in advance
p.s. I studied econ at uni so really should know this by now!