Hi, in the example under the strategy for spousal exemption - a decedent leaves a $500k estate to the spouse, which can be transferred to the children tax-free.
How are the children enjoying the tax free benefit which exists for the spouse?
If the surviving spouse waits until later to transfer the assets, they could be subject to gift/inheritance taxes. Why should this be so?
Could someone please shed some light on the above points?
Reference: Schweser Notes Book 1, Study Session 4, Reading 12, LOS 12 f, pg 337, Spousal Exemption
How are the children enjoying the tax free benefit which exists for the spouse?
If the surviving spouse waits until later to transfer the assets, they could be subject to gift/inheritance taxes. Why should this be so?
Could someone please shed some light on the above points?
Reference: Schweser Notes Book 1, Study Session 4, Reading 12, LOS 12 f, pg 337, Spousal Exemption