When we read this in standard III A:
"A manager who pays a higher commission than he or she would normally pay to purchase the goods or services, without corresponding benefit to the client, violates the duty of loyalty to the client."
Does this apply also when the client is infomed and he is in agreement to this (i.e. he has no objection)?
"A manager who pays a higher commission than he or she would normally pay to purchase the goods or services, without corresponding benefit to the client, violates the duty of loyalty to the client."
Does this apply also when the client is infomed and he is in agreement to this (i.e. he has no objection)?