All,
On Schweser P.91, they say that FCF models are preferred vis-a-vis dividend valuation models when we are talking about a majority stake. They give out a quick explanation saying that the ability to influence the distribution and application of these cash flows makes it pertinent for controlling shareholders perspective.
Can anyone clarify that?
Thanks!
On Schweser P.91, they say that FCF models are preferred vis-a-vis dividend valuation models when we are talking about a majority stake. They give out a quick explanation saying that the ability to influence the distribution and application of these cash flows makes it pertinent for controlling shareholders perspective.
Can anyone clarify that?
Thanks!