The following formula appears to be used in forecasting FCFE but not necessarily in all instances:
NI - (1-DR)(capex - depr) - (1-DR)(Inv in WC) = FCFE
Do we always use this when we are forecasting or is there some other reason on why we use this formula??
I only use this formula when the vignette/questions specifically asks for FCFE when the firm is striving for some target DR (Debt to Asset ratio). Otherwise, it’s best to stick with the traditional FCFE formulae.
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