Ernest Seow
New member
- Jun 18, 2026
- 0
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Dear all,
I understand from Equity section that free cash flow to firm (FCFF) is defined as the available cash flows after the necessary investments (FCInv and WCInv) has been made. Assuming U.S. GAAP: In the event if the company receive interest income from, maybe their investment in debt securities, am I right to say that we do not need to do anything to this interest income? My explanation: This is this is one of the sources of income which is available to the capital providers of the firm and at such there is no need to adjust out the interest income.
The above brings me to my next question. Under topic on M&A in Corporate Finance, there is this pro-forma calculation of free cash flow which is:-
Net Income
- After tax net interest expense
Unlevered Net Income
, where net interest expense = interest expense minus interest income
Question 2: Why in this case is interest income being accounted for?
Thank you.
Cheers,
Ernest
I understand from Equity section that free cash flow to firm (FCFF) is defined as the available cash flows after the necessary investments (FCInv and WCInv) has been made. Assuming U.S. GAAP: In the event if the company receive interest income from, maybe their investment in debt securities, am I right to say that we do not need to do anything to this interest income? My explanation: This is this is one of the sources of income which is available to the capital providers of the firm and at such there is no need to adjust out the interest income.
The above brings me to my next question. Under topic on M&A in Corporate Finance, there is this pro-forma calculation of free cash flow which is:-
Net Income
- After tax net interest expense
Unlevered Net Income
, where net interest expense = interest expense minus interest income
Question 2: Why in this case is interest income being accounted for?
Thank you.
Cheers,
Ernest