I think i agree with what you’re saying, but what i don’t understand is how you come up with that initial premium (over the treasury) in the first place.
I think it would be helpful to hear from any practicing fixed income analysts…how do you truly value non-treasuries in the “real world” ? I always understood the non-theorectically correct way of using current YTM (or a benchmark YTM assuming the bonds you’re valuing aren’t listed) to revalue a bond, but the theroretically correct way, per CFAI, suggests using spot rates. I understand why this is the more correct method, but how do you do it in practice, for non-treasuries that is ??