so, I think it is the case that the D/E ratio would be higher if the lease of a long-lived asset is classifie as a financing lease as opposed to operating?
I think the reason is because of the added liabilities (PV of the future debt mayments). But my question is- isn’t equity higher under a financing lease? Does’t the asset get transferrred to the leesee’s balance sheet, therefore the lessee’s balance sheet would see a higher equity level (because of the added leased asset)?
Thanks,
I think the reason is because of the added liabilities (PV of the future debt mayments). But my question is- isn’t equity higher under a financing lease? Does’t the asset get transferrred to the leesee’s balance sheet, therefore the lessee’s balance sheet would see a higher equity level (because of the added leased asset)?
Thanks,