In Q6 for the flattening of the yield curve the following explaination was given:
A flattening of the yield curve in the long end would result in a loss given a sensitivity of -1. For example, a 100 bp decline in the 30 year key rate duration would result in a loss of approximately 2.9% (-100*-1*-8.7*.333).
Where
Year 5 10 30
Steepness 1 .5 -1
My question is why did they consider only the 30 year bond with the -ve sensitivity? Am I missing something here?
A flattening of the yield curve in the long end would result in a loss given a sensitivity of -1. For example, a 100 bp decline in the 30 year key rate duration would result in a loss of approximately 2.9% (-100*-1*-8.7*.333).
Where
Year 5 10 30
Steepness 1 .5 -1
My question is why did they consider only the 30 year bond with the -ve sensitivity? Am I missing something here?