Fixed Income Question

BaseballRedhawks

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From CFAI book, page 149.
Can someone please help in explaining the below text? When interest rates rise, bond value falls. Which is bond for bondholders/fixed income. However, in this case, it seems like rising interest rates is good, because you get to reinvest income at a higher rate. Thanks for your help guys!
Total Return for Various Yields:
Suppose that a life insurance compnay sells a 5 year Guaranteed investment contract (GIC) that guarantes an interest rate of 7.5 percent per year on a BEY basis (3.75% every 6 months). Also suppose that the payment the policyholder makes is $9,624,899. You can plug this data in the calculator and get a future value that the life insurance company guarantees the policyholder 5 years from now = $13,934,413.
Assume the manager buys $9,642,899 face value of a bond selling at par with a 7.5% YTM that matures in 5 years. The portfolio will not be assured of realizing a total return at least equal to the target yield of 7.5%, because to realize 7.5%, the coupon interest paymentsm ust be reinvested at a minimum rate of 3.75% every 6 months. Thati s, the accumulated vlaue will depend on the reinvestment rate.
Suppose immediately after investing in the bond, yields in the mkt change and then stay at the new level for the remainder of the 5 years.
Answer: If market yields rise, an accumulated value (total return) higher than the target value (target yield will be achieved. This result follows because the coupon interest payments can be reinvested at a higher rate than the initial YTM. This result constrats with what happens when the yield declines. The accum value (total return) is then less than the target value (target yield). Therefore, investing in a coupon bond with a YTD equal to the target yield and a maturity equal to the investment horizon does not assure that the target value will be achieved.
 
BaseballRedhawks wrote:
From CFAI book, page 149.
When interest rates rise, bond value falls.
this assumes that you don’t reinvest your coupon.
The question on the other hand mentions that if yields rise, you get to reinvest your coupon at a higher rate.
 
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If market yields rise, an accumulated value (total return) higher than the target value (target yield will be achieved.
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it says accumulated value will be higher than target value (which was orignal YTM) it will still be less than market yield.
The reason is - only coupon payments can be reinvested at higher market yield which is higher than original YTM.
However, reinvesting the full principal at new market yield is gone (opportunity cost i guess)
So total return will be between original YTM and new Market Yield
 
Couple principals to keep in mind.
First, your liability and your investment have the same maturity of 5-years which means interest rate changes are only affecting the market value of the investment. You can let the original investment mature and not experience a ‘loss’ of value. You are still correct to say that interest rates increasing decreases bond values.
Second principal is an extension of the first. Your go-forward investments will experience higher return since the market rates have increased. If you reinvest the coupons from the orignal point above, AND let the original 5-year bond mature, your overall return will be higher than intially forecasted. Your ability to satisify the 5-year obligation has increased due to higher overall returns.
 
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